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Nurse Leader & Educator Certs

NI-BC · domain I of 3

Nursing informatics theories, law and ethics

Facts checked against nursingworld.org, codeofethics.ana.org and 2 more sites · Last checked Nov 6, 2026 · Not affiliated with ANCC, ANA, AONL, NLN or AACN.

The largest domain is also the least technical. It asks how the informatics nurse thinks about data, which rules govern it, and how projects are communicated and led, with theory names and statutes doing much of the work.

0 / 18 done · 0 correct18 questions

Inside Foundations of Practice

Outline section I has four parts:

  • Professional practice: the ANA scope and standards for the specialty, management basics, health-equity advocacy, including the social determinants, applying evidence to informatics solutions, the informatics nurse's own development.
  • Methodologies and theories: computer, information and nursing science as the base; DIKW; organizational behavior, communication systems, safety cultures, systems theory and information processing; change and improvement techniques (IHI, Agile, TQM, process excellence, high reliability). Models of the field such as Graves and Corcoran, and technology acceptance models, are our additions, not outline lines.
  • Rules and requirements: CMS and Joint Commission requirements, the HITECH Act, the CARES Act and the 21st Century Cures Act; legal issues from malpractice to copyright; HIPAA privacy and security; data ethics; writing and reviewing policy.
  • Interprofessional collaboration: timing and mode of communication, team building, conflict.

18 Foundations of Practice questions

Question 1 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

A researcher receives a data set with admission dates and five-digit ZIP codes but no names or medical record numbers. Under HIPAA, this data set is:

  1. Full dates and five-digit ZIP codes are allowed in a limited data set once direct identifiers are removed, and the recipient must sign a data use agreement.
  2. Safe Harbor requires removing all date elements except the year and truncating ZIP codes to three digits, so this set does not qualify; that is the usual trap.
  3. The data are still PHI, but a limited data set used for research under a data use agreement does not need individual authorizations.
  4. Removing names and record numbers is not enough to leave HIPAA; dates and full ZIP codes keep the data as PHI.
Question 2 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

A research extract replaces each medical record number with a random study code, and the privacy office keeps the key linking codes to patients. This technique is:

  1. Hashing runs a value through a one-way function; it is not a random code with a lookup key, and an unsalted hash of a record number can even be re-derived.
  2. Encryption scrambles the whole content so it is unreadable without a decryption key; the extract here stays readable and only the identifier is replaced.
  3. Aggregation combines records into group totals such as counts per unit, so individual rows and codes no longer exist.
  4. Pseudonymization swaps direct identifiers for a code while a separately held key allows authorized re-linking, which is what the privacy office's key provides.
Question 3 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

A parent requests proxy access to a 15-year-old's patient portal account. Which design best protects the adolescent?

  1. Unrestricted parental access exposes care that state law lets adolescents receive confidentially and discourages teens from seeking it.
  2. Adolescent proxy access is typically designed to show parents routine information while shielding care the teen may consent to alone, such as sexual or mental health services, under state minor-consent laws.
  3. A shared login removes any separation of confidential content and defeats auditing of who viewed what.
  4. Blocking parents entirely overcorrects; parents usually still have a right to non-confidential information about a minor's care.
Question 4 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

Which project situation is best suited to a waterfall approach?

  1. Two-week releases describe Agile sprints; waterfall delivers the whole system at the end.
  2. Shifting priorities are the reason to choose Agile, which reprioritizes the backlog every iteration; waterfall handles change poorly.
  3. Needs that emerge from seeing working software call for iterative Agile prototyping, not a plan fixed up front.
  4. Waterfall moves through fixed sequential phases with requirements locked at the start, so it suits a project whose requirements are stable and well defined.
Question 5 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

In the Shannon–Weaver communication model, an interface that drops characters from a lab result while it travels between systems represents:

  1. The channel is the medium that carries the message, here the interface itself; the dropped characters are interference on that channel, not the channel.
  2. Feedback is the receiver's response returned to the sender; a corrupted result is not a reply.
  3. The sender is the source system that originates the result; nothing in the stem describes the source creating a faulty message.
  4. In the Shannon–Weaver model, noise is anything that distorts or drops part of the message between sender and receiver, such as lost characters in transit.
Question 6 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

An informatics nurse wants to build a validated, copyrighted depression screening instrument into an EHR flowsheet. Before building it, the nurse should:

  1. Rewording a validated tool breaks its validation, and a close paraphrase can still infringe the copyright.
  2. Many validated instruments are copyrighted and licensed separately for electronic reproduction, so the license has to cover building the tool into an EHR before any build starts.
  3. Fair use is a narrow, case-by-case defense; routinely reproducing a whole instrument across an EHR is unlikely to qualify.
  4. Attribution is good practice but does not grant permission; citing authors is not a license to reproduce copyrighted items.
Question 7 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

A hospital receives notice of a malpractice lawsuit involving a patient's care last year. What must the organization do with that patient's EHR data?

  1. Records are produced through legal channels such as a subpoena or the patient's authorization, not handed over on receipt of a lawsuit notice.
  2. Once litigation is pending or reasonably expected, the organization must preserve relevant EHR data, metadata, and audit trails by suspending routine destruction under a legal hold.
  3. Changing records after a claim arrives looks like tampering; legitimate corrections follow the audited amendment process and are not made to prepare for litigation.
  4. Following the normal schedule after notice of a lawsuit destroys evidence and can be treated as spoliation.
Question 8 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

Two hospitals in the same system reach identical barcode medication scanning compliance, one through a phased rollout and the other through a big-bang go-live. Which systems theory concept does this illustrate?

  1. Entropy is a system's drift toward disorder without input of energy or maintenance; it describes decline, not two routes to one result.
  2. Homeostasis is a system's tendency to keep a steady internal state through feedback, not the matching of results across different paths.
  3. Multifinality is the reverse idea: similar starting conditions lead to different outcomes. Swapping the two terms is the classic error.
  4. Equifinality is the open-systems principle that the same end state can be reached from different starting points or by different paths, here phased and big-bang rollouts.
Question 9 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

A float nurse must view the record of a patient outside the nurse's assignment during a rapid response. Which access control design best balances timely access with privacy?

  1. Waiting for another nurse to grant access delays care in a rapid response and depends on a person being reachable.
  2. Open access for everyone ignores the minimum necessary principle, and once-a-year audits catch inappropriate viewing far too late.
  3. Break-the-glass lets a clinician override normal access limits in an urgent situation, captures the reason, and flags the access for review, balancing speed with accountability.
  4. Assignment-only access protects privacy but blocks the float nurse during an emergency, which puts the patient at risk.
Question 10 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

Before running any test cycles on a fall-prevention alert, the team answers three questions: what it is trying to accomplish, how it will know a change made things better, and what changes to try. This is:

  1. The Iowa Model is an evidence-based practice framework built on triggers and decision points about evidence; confusing EBP models with QI models is a common slip.
  2. Value stream mapping diagrams every step of a process to expose waste and delays; it is a tool, not a set of guiding questions.
  3. DMAIC moves through define, measure, analyze, improve, and control phases to cut variation; it does not open with the three questions.
  4. The Model for Improvement starts with three fundamental questions on aims, measures, and changes, then tests changes in PDSA cycles.
Question 11 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

A patient asks that a newly finalized pathology result be released to the portal right away instead of after clinician review. Under federal information blocking rules, the organization generally should:

  1. Patients have a right to their own information; authorization is for disclosures to third parties, not for giving results to the patient.
  2. Under federal information blocking rules, electronic health information goes to the patient without delay; a hold is allowed only if a defined exception, such as preventing harm, fits the specific case.
  3. A routine delay so the clinician can speak first is the kind of blanket practice the rule treats as interference, and the patient here has asked for prompt release.
  4. Treating HIPAA's minimum as the limit ignores the separate federal information blocking duty; withholding available electronic information can be information blocking.
Question 12 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

A rehabilitation facility requests a transferred patient's full hospital record to plan ongoing care. How does the HIPAA minimum necessary standard affect this request?

  1. Treatment disclosures between providers are permitted without written authorization; that requirement belongs to uses outside treatment, payment, and operations.
  2. The minimum necessary standard is waived for disclosures to a health care provider for treatment, so the hospital may send the record the facility needs to continue care.
  3. Item-by-item privacy review is not required for treatment disclosures and would delay care at the point of transfer.
  4. Nothing in the rule caps a treatment disclosure at a discharge summary; this applies the minimum necessary idea where it does not reach.
Question 13 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

A document states that nurses must scan the patient's wristband and each medication before every administration, but it does not list the steps for doing so. This document is a:

  1. A policy states what must be done and the organization's expectation, here scanning before every administration, without the step-by-step method.
  2. A procedure gives the sequential steps for carrying out a task; the stem explicitly says the steps are missing, which is the usual policy/procedure confusion.
  3. A guideline offers recommended, flexible direction rather than a mandatory rule; 'must scan before every administration' is not optional.
  4. A protocol is a detailed clinical plan for a specific condition or treatment, such as a heparin protocol, not a general organizational requirement.
Question 14 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

A ransomware attack encrypts the EHR database, and clinicians cannot open records for 12 hours, although no data are viewed or taken. Which element of the CIA triad was primarily compromised?

  1. Accountability, tracing actions to users through logs, is a security goal but is not one of the three CIA triad elements.
  2. Integrity concerns data being altered or corrupted without authorization; the main harm here is that no one can use the records.
  3. Availability means authorized users can reach data and systems when needed; locked-out clinicians for 12 hours is an availability failure.
  4. Confidentiality is lost when data are viewed or taken by unauthorized people; the stem says nothing was viewed or taken.
Question 15 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

Which law directed the creation of the Trusted Exchange Framework and Common Agreement (TEFCA) and defined information blocking?

  1. HITECH (2009) funded EHR adoption through Meaningful Use and strengthened HIPAA enforcement, but it predates information blocking and TEFCA.
  2. The Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act (MACRA, 2015) created the Quality Payment Program and folded Meaningful Use into MIPS; it did not create TEFCA.
  3. The 21st Century Cures Act of 2016 defined information blocking and directed ONC to develop the Trusted Exchange Framework and Common Agreement.
  4. The Affordable Care Act of 2010 reshaped coverage and payment models; it did not create TEFCA or define information blocking.
Question 16 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

Graves and Corcoran's 1989 model, foundational to nursing informatics, describes the progression from:

  1. This drops data, the base level of the model, and adds the later wisdom level.
  2. This is the later DIKW framework; crediting wisdom to the original 1989 model is the most common error.
  3. Graves and Corcoran's 1989 model described nursing informatics as managing data, information, and knowledge; wisdom was added later, notably in the 2008 ANA scope and standards.
  4. This skips information, the step where data are organized and interpreted, and adds wisdom, which the 1989 model did not include.
Question 17 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

Nurses say they would use a new mobile charting app, but two wings have no reliable Wi-Fi and there are too few charging stations. In UTAUT, these barriers belong to which construct?

  1. In UTAUT, facilitating conditions are the organizational and technical resources, like Wi-Fi coverage and charging stations, that people believe support use of the system.
  2. Effort expectancy is how easy the app seems to use; poor infrastructure is not a usability judgment about the app.
  3. Behavioral intention is the outcome the nurses already report; it is what the barriers would undermine, not the barriers themselves.
  4. Social influence is the pressure from important others to use the technology, which the stem does not mention.
Question 18 of 18 · Foundations of Practice · 36%

A hospital is choosing a new EHR and wants to keep participating in the Medicare Promoting Interoperability Program. The selected product must be:

  1. The Promoting Interoperability Program requires certified EHR technology, meaning a product certified under the ONC Health IT Certification Program.
  2. EMRAM stages are a voluntary HIMSS maturity benchmark; no CMS program requires them.
  3. EHRs are generally not regulated as devices, and FDA clearance has nothing to do with Promoting Interoperability participation.
  4. The Joint Commission accredits health care organizations, not software products.

Your score shows up after the last answer.

Where Foundations questions trip people

  • DIKW is about use, not volume. A value alone is data. Placed in context, such as a trend, a unit of measure or a reference range, it becomes information. Knowledge is the pattern drawn across many such pieces, and wisdom is the judgment to act on it for a given patient. Expect to classify an example by level.
  • Privacy Rule vs Security Rule. The HIPAA Privacy Rule governs who may use and disclose protected health information in any form. The Security Rule covers electronic PHI only and is organized as administrative, physical and technical safeguards (45 CFR Part 164). A question about audit logs or encryption is a Security Rule question.
  • De-identification has two methods. HIPAA recognizes Safe Harbor, which removes 18 listed identifier types, and Expert Determination, in which a qualified expert certifies that re-identification risk is very small.
  • HITECH is more than penalties. The 2009 act raised HIPAA penalties, added a federal breach notification duty and paid incentives for meaningful use of electronic records, the program CMS now runs as Promoting Interoperability.
  • Communication mode follows the message. Face-to-face for conflict, bad news or a change that needs buy-in; written for decisions that need a record; electronic for routine updates to a wide audience.

Rest of the informatics outline

Foundations of Practice: quick answers

Which informatics theories should I know by name?

DIKW first, then the theories the outline names: systems theory, information processing and communication models. Beyond the outline, textbooks add models of the field such as Graves and Corcoran's, and technology acceptance models such as TAM and UTAUT. Learn what each explains, not its history.

How much law is in this domain?

Enough to need a sheet of its own. Federal privacy and security rules, health IT statutes and the legal issues of practice share one outline part, and policy writing sits right beside them.